Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 00:25
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Do you regret being married to your current wife?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Do Republicans give permission to Democrats to vote for any candidate except for Kamala Harris?
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Is it okay or problematic to be both Black and gay in society in the 21st century?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?